35 đề ôn thi Tiếng Anh vào Lớp 6

35 đề ôn thi Tiếng Anh vào Lớp 6

7. In which galaxy is the Earth?

A. The Black Eye Galaxy B. The Whirlpool

C. The Andromeda Galaxy D. The Milky Way

8. My little sister is .of storms. She often hides herself in the wardrobe.

A. anxious B. terrified C. worried D. scary

9. It has been raining so much. I hope the river will not .

A. flow B. flood C. run D. follow

10. We are looking forward .the new art exhibit at the weekend.

A. seeing B. to seeing C. see D. be seeing

11. In which sport does the scoring begin at 15?

A. Judo B. Table tennis C. Fencing D. Tennis

12. Julia, you .clean up. I'll do it later.

A. must B. shouldn’t C. ought to D. don't have to

13. There has been an increase .the number of robberies in our area.

A. in B. on C. up D. down

14. She always wears a hat to .herself from the sun.

A. protect B. fight C. guard D. preserve

 

docx 16 trang loandominic179 6052
Bạn đang xem tài liệu "35 đề ôn thi Tiếng Anh vào Lớp 6", để tải tài liệu gốc về máy bạn click vào nút DOWNLOAD ở trên
TRẦN THANH HƯƠNG (Chủ biên) NGÔ HÀ THU - NGUYỄN THU HIỀN
35 ĐỂ ÔN LUYỆN THI VÀO LỚP 6 CHẤT LƯỢNG CAO MÔN TIẾNG ANH
NHÀ XUẤT BẢN ĐẠI HỌC QUỐC GIA HÀ NỘI liên hệ Zalo 0988166193
LỜI NÓI ĐẦU
Cuốn sách 35 đê ôn luyện thi vào lớp 6 Chất lượng cao môn Tiếng Anh được nhóm tác giả biên soạn nhằm giúp các em học sinh luyện tập, củng cố kiến thức đã được học ở bậc Tiểu học; làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi và các dạng bài thi thường gặp trong kì thi tuyển sinh lớp 6 của các trường THCS uy tín tại Hà Nội. Đồng thời, giáo viên, phụ huynh cũng có thể sử dụng sách để tham khảo và cùng đồng hành với các con trong việc hướng dẫn, giảng dạy và kiểm tra kiến thức, đánh giá năng lực học sinh thường xuyên hoặc định kì.
Cuốn sách được biên soạn bám sát các kiến thức cơ bản và nâng cao về chủ điểm, từ vựng, ngữ pháp và ngữ âm đã được giới thiệu trong chương trình tiếng Anh bậc Tiểu học.
Nội dung cuốn sách gồm hai phần chính:
Phần 1: 15 đề luyện thi vào lớp 6 trường THCS Ngoại ngữ - Đại học Ngoại ngữ - Đại học Quốc gia Hà Nội;
Phần 2: 20 đề luyện thi vào lớp 6 các trường THCS công lập, dân lập, bán công và chuyên của Hà Nội như Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Nội - Amsterdam, Trường THCS Cầu Giấy, Trường THCS & THPT Nguyễn Tất Thành - Đại học Sư phạm Hà Nội, Trường THCS Archimedes Academy, Trường THCS Đoàn Thị Điểm, Trường tiểu học - THCS - THPT Nguyễn Siêu và Trường THCS & THPT Lương Thế Vinh.
Ngoài ra nhóm tác giả đã biên soạn phần Đáp án để giúp các em trong quá trình tự học và rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài thi.
Điểm mới và nổi bật của cuốn sách là phần ghi chú tổng hợp các cấu trúc đặc biệt xuất hiện trong mỗi đề luyện, giúp các em củng cố và nhớ sâu hơn kiến thức.
Để việc học tập đạt kết quả tốt nhất, các em học sinh khi làm đề cần đặt thời gian, suy nghĩ kĩ và cẩn thận trước khi đối chiếu câu trả lời của mình với phần đáp án.
Trong quá trình biên soạn, mặc dù các tác giả đã rất cố gắng song cuốn sách không thể tránh khỏi những thiếu sót nhất định. Chúng tôi rất mong nhận được những ý kiến đóng góp của Quý Thầy, Cô và các em học sinh để ấn phẩm hoàn thiện hơn trong những lần tái bản tiếp theo.
Mọi phản hồi xin gửi về địa chỉ:
Phòng Nội dung, Công ty cổ phần Sách và Công nghệ Giáo dục Việt Nam, số 6 ngõ 5 đường Hoàng Quốc Việt, quận Cầu Giấy, Hà Nội.
Email: bientap.eduking@gmail.com
CÁC TÁC GIẢ 
CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI
GIỚI THIỆU VỀ CẤU TRÚC CUỐN SÁCH
Như đã giới thiệu ở Lời nói đầu, cuốn sách gồm 35 đề thi được xây dựng dựa theo cấu trúc đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 6 của Trường THCS Ngoại ngữ - Đại học Ngoại ngữ - ĐHQG Hà Nội (gọi tắt là Trường THCS Ngoại ngữ) và các trường THCS công lập, dân lập, bán công và chuyên của Hà Nội (gọi tắt là các trường THCS Chất lượng cao).
Hiện nay, đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 6 tại các trường nói trên không có cấu trúc thống nhất. Ngoại trừ Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Nội - Amsterdam sử dụng đề thi do Sở Giáo dục & Đào tạo Hà Nội ban hành, các trường khác thường chủ động thiết kế câu hỏi cho đề thi của trường mình. Trường THCS Ngoại ngữ, bắt đầu tổ chức tuyển sinh từ năm học 2019 - 2020, đã công bố cấu trúc đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 6 (kèm theo Quyết định số 960/QĐ- ĐHNN ngày 22 tháng 04 năm 2019). Theo đó, thông tin chi tiết về bài thi Đánh giá năng lực tiếng Anh đã được nêu rất cụ thể về thời gian làm bài, số phần, tổng số câu hỏi và hình thức làm bài:
Phần Nghe
20 phút
20 câu hỏi /4 phần
Phần Đọc - Viết
50 phút
41 câu hỏi /7 phần(bao gồm 01 bài viết đoạn văn)
Cấu trúc đề tuyển sinh lớp 6 của các trường THCS Chất lượng cao, mặt khác, khá đa dạng; thời gian làm bài cũng khác nhau.
Vì vậy, nhóm tác giả quyết định thiết kế hai nhóm đề khác nhau: nhóm thứ nhất gồm 15 đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 6 theo cấu trúc đề thi của Trường THCS Ngoại ngữ; nhóm thứ hai gồm 20 đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 6 các trường THCS Chất lượng cao. Đối với các đề thi thuộc nhóm này, nhóm tác giả đã xây dựng một cấu trúc đề thi tổng quát bao gồm các dạng bài tập khác nhau, thường xuất hiện trong đề tuyển sinh lớp 6 của các trường THCS Chất lượng cao trong vòng 03 năm trở lại đây.
Trong khuôn khổ cuốn sách, nhóm tác giả sẽ tập trung vào kiến thức Từ vựng - Ngữ pháp - Ngữ âm và kĩ năng Đọc - Viết. Đối với phần thi Nghe, nhóm tác giá đề xuất một số các tựa sách dùng để luyện tập kĩ năng nghe như sau:
1.	Practice Test Plus Flyers. Tác giả: Kathryn Alevizos (NXB Pearson) 
PHẦN THỨ 1
ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI VÀO LỚP 6 TRƯỜNG TRUNG HỌC CƠ SỞ NGOẠI NGỮ
PRACTICE TEST 1 
Time allowance: 50 minutes
I. Choose the correct words and write them on the lines. There is one example.
lawyer	 court	 arrest	 judge	 commit
witness	guilty	 punish 	 criminal	 police station
Example: You can go here for help if someone steals your money.	 ..police station ..
1.	To make somebody suffer because they have done something wrong.	.. 	
2.	The place where crimes are judged.	.. 	
3.	To taken somebody to a police station and keep them there. 	.. 	
4.	A person who sees something happen and can describe it to other people.	.. 	
5.	A person who is trained and qualified to advise people about the law.	.. 	
6.	Having done something illegal.	.. 	
II.	Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
7.	In which galaxy is the Earth?
A. The Black Eye Galaxy	B. The Whirlpool
C. The Andromeda Galaxy	D. The Milky Way
8.	My little sister is ..of storms. She often hides herself in the wardrobe.
A. anxious	B. terrified	C. worried	D. scary
9.	It has been raining so much. I hope the river will not ...
A. flow	B. flood	C. run	D. follow
10.	We are looking forward ..the new art exhibit at the weekend.
A. seeing	B. to seeing 	C. see	D. be seeing
11.	In which sport does the scoring begin at 15?
A. Judo	B. Table tennis 	C. Fencing	D. Tennis
12.	Julia, you ..clean up. I'll do it later.
A. must	B. shouldn’t 	C. ought to	D. don't have to
13.	There has been an increase ..the number of robberies in our area.
A. in	B. on	C. up	D. down
14.	She always wears a hat to ..herself from the sun.
A. protect	B. fight	C. guard	D. preserve
15.	In our solar system which planet is the farthest from the Sun?
A. Venus	B. Jupiter	C. Neptune	D. Mercury
16.	In land area which is the world's largest continent?
A. Asia	B. Australia	C. America	D. Europe
III.	Complete this conversation between Vanessa and Peter by matching sentences A-H with gaps 17-22. There are TWO extra sentences.
A.	We’re flying back on the 26th
B.	What’s the weather like there 
C. We’d like to go to the beach 
D. But I’ve heard Thailand can be terribly hot in February
E.	I’m not sure really
F.	Give him my best wishes when you see him
G.	It’s good to have tom yum for dinner
H.	When are you leaving
Vanessa:	I hear your parents have booked your flights to Bangkok. (17) ..?
Peter:	On Monday. We’re getting the overnight flight.
Vanessa:	Are you staying long?
Peter:	A couple of weeks. (18) ...
Vanessa:	What about accommodation?
Peter:	My parents have booked a hotel for the first two nights. We’re staying at the Asia Hotel on Sukhumvit Road.
Vanessa:	That sounds nice. (19) ...	.
Peter:	No, I’ve been there before, so I know it won’t be too hot then.
Vanessa:	What are your plans while you're in the city?
Peter:	Do you remember John - my cousin? We’re having lunch with him on the 14th.
Vanessa:	(20) .... What about after that?
Peter:	I'm not sure. We’re going to look around and see what's available. (21) ....
Vanessa:	How are you going to get there?
Peter:	We’ll probablv get the bus. (22) ...
Vanessa:	Shall 1 look on the Internet? There might be a timetable or something.
Peter:	That’s a good idea.
Vanessa:	OK. I’ll borrow my father’s computer.
IV.	Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase in the box that best fits each of the blanks.
extinct	 alien plants	 unchecked	 destroyed
agricultural	 balance	 die out	 vegetation
Human activity is a primary reason why many species are now (23) ... and many more are endangered. The problem is that habitats are being (24) ...not by one single event, but by a series of
actions. One example is when people introduce (25) ...or animals to a new environment where they have no natural predators. This risks disturbing the ecological (26) ...in the area and kills native species.
Humans also damage the Earth by cutting down forests for development and (27) ...purposes. If this trend continues (28) ..., the future of the planet will be a grim one indeed.
(adapted from Reading for the Real World 1)
V.	Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
QATAR TO HOST 2022 SOCCER WORLD CUP
The tiny Middle Eastern nation of Qatar has a soccer team, but it has never played in soccer's greatest tournament, the World Cup. However, something amazing will happen in 2022, when Qatar will become the first nation in the Middle East to host the men's Soccer World Cup games.
Some fans were confused about this choice. Where will the athletes compete? Qatar doesn't have any stadiums built yet. Also, the weather in Qatar gets extremely hot in the summer. However, Qatar has plans to fix those problems. The country has announced plans to build enough stadiums for the tournament. To keep everyone cool, each stadium will have solar-powered air-conditioning. Qatar is also building a new airport and train system.
Because the stadiums will be so close together and connected by train, fans will be able to watch two games in one day.
Qatar has big plans for its new stadiums. Game officials say that after the World Cup, they will take the stadiums down. The stadiums will be taken apart and sent to countries that don't have enough money to build their own stadiums.
Qatar is very happy to be the first Middle Eastern nation to host the tournament. As the country's Emir, Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa AI-Thani said to the World Cup organization, “Thank you for believing in change.... Thank you for giving Qatar a chance."
(adapted from Active Skills for Reading Intro)
29. Why is it so amazing that Qatar will host the World Cup?
A.	Qatar has never played in the World Cup.
B.	Soccer is not played in the Middle East.
C. Qatar has very few soccer fans.
D. Qatar is a small country.
30.	What is one problem that Qatar will address?
A.	Their team is not good enough to compete.
B.	It is very, very hot in Qatar in summer.
C. Qatar's stadiums are very far apart.
D. There is a lot of pollution in Qatar.
31.	How did some soccer fans feel about the decision?
A. They thought it was strange.	B. They did not care.
C. They were very excited.	D. They were very sad.
32.	What will happen to the stadiums after the World Cup in Qatar?
A.	They will be used by the Qatar soccer team.
B.	The stadiums will host musical concerts.
C. They will be given to other countries.
D. They will be sold to fans as souvenirs.
33.	What can be inferred from the article?
A.	The tournament was moved from Japan to Qatar.
B.	Qatar is a wealthy country.
C. The rules of soccer will be changed in 2022.
D. Soccer is the official sport in Qatar.
34.	The underlined word “host" is closest in meaning to the word"	
A. invite	B. present 	C. organize 	D. build
VI. Rewrite the second sentence using the given word(s) so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Write between THREE and FIVE words including the given words.
35.	If we don’t protect the environment, many animals will die. (UNLESS)
→ Many animals ..environment.
36.	He didn’t make any noise as he entered the house. (WITHOUT)
→ He entered .any noise.
37.	The police are investigating why the man has got unconscious. (LOOKING)
→ The police are the man has got unconscious.
38.	It was such a dry cake that I couldn't eat it. (SO)
→ The cake was .I couldn’t eat it
39.	Fifty girls entered the dancing contest last year. (PART)
→ Fifty girls ..the dancing contest last year.
40.	He went on a picnic although the weather was bad. (SPITE)
→ We went on a picnic ..weather.
VII. Write a paragraph (at least 80 words) to describe a place you like to go to. You may use the following suggestions.
-	What is that place?
-	What is the weather like in that place?
-	What would you like to do in that place?
-	Why would you like to go to that place?
PRACTICE TEST 2 
Time allowance: 50 minutes
I. Choose the correct words and write them on the lines. There is one example.
police station	 sky	 a dentist	 bank	 charity
bookshop	 agency	 library	 a doctor	 space
Example: You can go here for help if someone steals your money.	 police station .
1.	You can go here to read and borrow books and newspapers.	 ...
2.	You can keep your money here.	 ...
3.	You can go here to buy books and newspapers sometimes.	 ...
4.	You can see this person when you have problems with your teeth.	 ...
5.	This is an organisation for helping people in need.	 ...
6.	The space above the earth that you can see when you look up, 
where clouds and the sun, moon and stars appear.	 ...
II. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions year. 
7.	He lives in a(n) ..	cottage in the countryside.
A. stone, old, small	B. old, small, stone	C. small, old, stone	D. stone, small, old
8. Look at that boy! He ..from the tree.
A. is going to fall 	B. goes to fall 	C. will fall 	D. falls
9. I wouldn’t advise ..in the car; you might get dizzy.
A. to read	B. read	C. reading	D. to be reading
10.	Helen works as ..volunteer, helping ..elderly.
A. a - an	B. the - the	C. a - Ø	D. a - the
11.	Trang ..into the classroom just as her teacher ..the lesson.
A. was walking - started	B. walked – started	
C. walked - was starting	D. was walking - was starting
12. Which of the following is NOT a mammal?
A. whale	B. frog	C. bat	D. bear
13.	Which ocean does not border North America?
A. Atlantic Ocean	B. Arctic Ocean	C. Indian Ocean	D. Pacific Ocean
14.	You’ve got an umbrella with you, ..?
A. don't you 	B. do you	C. have you	D. haven’t you
15.	How many hemispheres are there?
A. 1	B. 2	C. 3	D. 4
16. Lình read an interesting ..of news in the paper.
A. piece	B. slice	C. packet	D. block	
III. Complete this conversation between two friends by matching sentences A-H with gaps 17-22. There are TWO extra sentences.
A. Yes, I am.
B. No, thanks, I don't really enjoy it.
C. Nothing much. I'm playing football on Saturday morning.
D. Yes, OK. What time?
B. Oh. I forget that I have to look after my brother until 3.
F. Fine. See you then!
G. Yes. Shall we?
H. Any idea?
Sam: Hi, Martha. What are you up to this weekend?
Martha: (17) 
Sam: Are you free in the afternoon?
Martha: (18) 
Sam: Great! Let's go shopping.
Martha: (19) 
Sam: Oh, OK. How about going for a bike ride?
Martha: (20) 
Sam: Shall we meet at my house at 2 o'clock on Saturday afternoon?
Martha: (21) 
Sam : Let's meet up at 3.30 then.
Martha: (22) 
IV. Read the following passage and choose the word or phrasefl box that best fits each of the blanks.	
animals	 produce	 vegetarians	 keep
a lot of	 people	 chicken	 become 
Vegans, are vegetarian.: they don’t eat fish or meat. However, most (23) eat egg, cheese and other dairy products, but vegans don't. In fact, they don't eat any food from (24) eggs and honey, for example, why do people (25) vegans? Usually, they believe it's wrong to kill animals for food or (26) 	them for milk, eggs and other products. They also believe that keeping animals is bad for the
environment because it needs (27)	 space. A small farm with animals can (28) food for 20 people; but use the same land for vegetables and It can feed 240 people!
(adapted from Solutions 2nd Edition Elementary Workbook)
V. Read the following passage and decide if the statements are True (T) or False (F).
There is a famous landmark in the desert of central Australia. European explorers saw it for the first time in 1873 and named it Ayers Rock. The original inhabitants of this part of Australia, the Aborigines, call it Uluru. The rock is huge. It is 348 metres high, 3.6 kilometres long and 1.9 kilometres wide. It is a beautiful red-brown colour, especially when the sun shines on it early in the morning and in the evening.
When tourists want to visit Uluru, they often start 440 kilometres away in a town called Alice Springs. From there, they organise a camping trip into the desert. People on these trips usually sleep outside under the stars, not in tents, because it’s more exciting. A fire keeps away snakes and other animals during the night. After breakfast, visitors often walk around the base of the rock. This walk is 9.4 kilometres long and takes two hours.
By law, Uluru belongs to the Aborigines and they still use it today for religious ceremonies. Because of this, they ask visitors not to climb it. However, about 100,000 visitors each year ignore this request.
	(adapted from Solutions 2nd Edition Elementary Student's Book)
29.	The Aborigines’ name for Uluru is "Ayers Rock”.	 ..
30.	It is 348 metres long.	 ..
31.	It's easy to travel to Uluru from Alice Springs.	 ..
32. People usually sleep outside when visiting Uluru to show their respects.	 ..
33.	Today, the Aborigines don’t use Uluru for ceremonies.	 ..	
34.	The Aborigines do not like people climbing the rock. 	 ..
VI. Rewrite the second sentence using the given word(s) so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
35. I don’t want to listen to this song again. (BORED)
→I’m .
36.	Would you mind lending me your pen? (KIND)
→ Would you .
37.	It is the fastest car he has ever driven. (NEVER)
→He ..	
38.	Frank is less respectful than his brother. (AS)
→ Frank 
39.	She spent an hour preparing for the party. (TOOK)
→It .	
40.	How fast she runs! (FAST)
→ What .	
VII. Write a paragraph (at least 80 words) to describe your most memorable holiday. You may use the following suggestions.
-	Where did you go? With whom? When? For how long?
-	What did you do there? Anything special?
-	What did you remember most about the holiday (eg. food, weather, sightseeing, people, etc.)? Why?
-	Do you want to come back?
PRACTICE TEST 3
Time allowance: 50 minutes
I. Choose the correct words and write them on the lines. There is one example.
an envelope a fork a journalist conversation scissors
a secret pilots parents	 a moustache a spoon
Example: These people are both your father and your mother.	 .parents .	
1.	A man can have this on his face above his upper lip.	 ..	
2.	We use these to cut things. They are often made of metal and plastic.	 ..	
3.	These people fly planes and travel round the world a lot. 	 ..
4.	This is made of metal and we often use it with a knife. It isn't round.	 ..	
5.	This is when two or more people talk to each other.	 ..	
6.	This is something that you can’t tell anyone about.	 ..	
II.	Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.	
7.	Sam the newspaper and then he the plane to Chicago.
A. bought - was taking	B. was buying - took
C. bought - took	D. was buying - was taking
8.	Which of the following month has 31 days?
A. October	B. February 	C. June	D. April
9.	Neither the teacher nor the students about his absence.
A. knows	B. know	C. is knowing	D. are knowing
10.	Where are Mississippi River and	Thames?
A. Ø - Ø	B. Ø - the	C. a - Ø	D. the - the
11.	Could you turn the music? The baby is sleeping.
A. away	B. up	C. down	D. over
12.	How many zeros are there in one hundred thousand?
A. four	B. five	C. six	D. seven
13.	Mike: " did you reach your destination?"
Jack: "Really late, at about midnight."
A. How often 	B. Where	C. How long 	D. When 
14.	The faster Brian walks, 	
A. the more tired is he	B. the more tired he gets
C. more tired he is	D. he gets more tired
15. I make new friends since I moved here. 
A. can’t	B. am not able to	C. couldn’t	D. haven’t been able to
16. Which continent is the Sahara Desert located on?
A. Asia	B. Europe 	C. Africa	D. America
III.	Complete this conversation between Linda and her cousin, Vince They are talking about cooking. What does Vince say? Match sentences A-H with gaps 17-22. There are TWO extra sentences.
A. So do I! But I like it with chicken, eggs and cream too.
B. Not long - you boil it in water for about ten minutes.
C. Is it? What do you need?
D. Yes, it will. I’ll check with Mum, but it’ll be OK, I’m sure.
E. I can cook pasta, that’s all.
F. Saturday’s better, Linda. Mum has to work on Friday nights.
G. No, there'll only be your parents, my parents and Sue.
H. That’s a great idea. Shall we do that at our house or at your house?
Linda:	I’m learning to make cakes. Can you cook, Vince?
Vince:	(17) 
Linda:	I can’t. How long does that take to cook?
Vince:	(18) 	
Linda:	That's quick! And do you have that with tomatoes and cheese? I love that!
Vince:	(19) 
Linda:	That sounds great! Why don’t we make a meal for everyone?
Vince:	(20) 	
Linda:	Let’s do it at your house. How about next Friday?
Vince:	(21) 	
Linda:	OK. You do the main course and I’ll make a chocolate cake. It’ll be fun!
Vince:	(22) 
Linda:	I hope so!
IV. Read the following passage and choose the word in the box that best fits each of the blanks.
subject 	 takes	 gives	 timetable	 language
necklace	 uniform	 sit	 tie	 write
MY SCHOOL
I like going to school because I see my best friends there. All the students wear a (23) at my school. It’s blue and it looks OK, but I don’t like wearing a (24) . It's so uncomfortable round my neck!
We don't sit in the same classroom all day. We move for each lesson. I never remember what lesson I have so I'm always looking at my (25) !
My favourite (26) is French. Our French teacher is really cool. We never sit at our desks all lesson. We often get up and (27) on the board. We had a French exam last week. I was really happy with my mark because I got 19/20.
I don’t like Histoiy very much. Our History teacher always (28) us lots of homework!
(Gold Experience A2 Workbook)
V.	Read the following passage and decide if the statements are True (T) or False (F).
EATING OUT IN SF
Whatever food you’re looking for - an-all-you-can-eat breakfast, a quick lunch, a romantic dinner - you'll find it in San Francisco. The city is home to over 4,500 restaurants and eating places. And they’re not only for tourists. On average, San Franciscans eat out 267 times a year.
You can eat food from anywhere in the world, from Afghan to Argentinian, and from Vietnamese to vegetarian. With Mexican fast food, Italian bakenes, hundreds of Thai, Chinese, Vietnamese, and Korean restaurants, and in-and-out Japanese noodle shops, it’s possible to eat your way round the world during a single San Francisco weekend.
And you don't find good food only in expensive restaurants. You can try great cooking in any number of small eating places, where prices are low and reservations aren’t needed. Portions are often large, but you can ask the restaurant to pack up anything you don’t eat so you can take it home. But wherever you eat, if you have waiter service, don't forget to tip. 
The exact amount you leave is up to you, but 15-20 per cent of the bill is normal. An easy way to calculate your tip is to double the sales tax (currently 8.5 per cent).
(New English File Pre-intermediate Workbooky)
29.	San Francisco has the best restaurants in the US.	 ..
30.	You can probably find food from your country in San Francisco.	 ..
31.	There are a lot of Asian restaurants.	 ..
32.	You don't need to make a reservation to eat in an expensive	restaurant.	 ..
33.	Portions of food in eating places are often large.	 ..	
34.	If your meal costs $100, you should leave a tip of $8.50.	 ..
VI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
35.	My father owns this car.
→ This is 
36.I have a lot of work, so I can't go out this evening.
→ If .
37.	What is the price of that camera?
→ How much .
38.	We have no time to prepare for trip.
→ We don't have 
39.	The bookstore is to the left of the bank.
→ The bank .	
40.I	have a plan to visit my grandparents next weekend.
→ I am 	
VII. Write a paragraph (at least 50 words) to describe your favourite season. You may use the following suggestions.
-	What season is it?
-	When does it begin and end?
-	What is the weather like in this season?
-	What do people usually do in this season 
PRACTICE TEST 4
Time allowance: 50 minutes
I.	Choose the correct words and write them on the lines. There is one example.
hobby	 enthusiasm	 passion	 likes	 interest
habit	 lifestyle	 obsession	 challenge	police station
Example: You can go here for help if someone steals your money.	 .police station ..
1.	A person or thing that somebody thinks about too much. 	 	 .
2.	A thing that you do often and almost without thinking.	 .
3.	The way in which a person lives and works.	 .	
4.	A strong feeling of excitement and interest in something and a desire to become involved in it.	 .
5.	A very strong feeling of liking something or an activity that you like very much.	
	 .	
6.	An activity that you do for pleasure when you are not studying.	 .
II.	Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
7. I didn't have much cash so I decided to pay cheque.
A. in	B. on	C. with	D. by
8. There was a really queue outside the cinema.
A. large	B. long	C. wide	D. broad
9. I got a big discount this table because it had a scratch on it.
A. with	B. for	C. to	D. on
10.	This DVD player doesn’t work. We'll have to it back to the shop.
A. return	B. bring	C. have	D. take
11.	What are you interested in if you study calligraphy?
A. Photography	B. Drawing	C. Hand writing	D. Kite flying
12.	Damir comes from Russia and Russian language is his mother .
A. tongue	B. mouth	C. lip	D. heart
13.	The black swan is native to which country?
A. Italy	B. New Zealand 	C. India	D. Australia
14.	Nguyen Thi Anh Vien is one of the most outstanding athletes in 
A. swimming	B. wrestling 	C. karate	D. judo
15.	Every week our family members have .in the family reunion.
A. the good time	B. a good time 	C. good time	D. good times
16.	What colour is a sapphire?
A. Blue	B. Red	C. Green	D. Pink
III. Complete this conversation between Paula and Jim by matching sentences A-H with gaps 17-22. There are TWO extra sentences.
A. It isn’t too bad at the moment but it will get worse
B. I suppose it’s quite easy to treat. 
C. What a crazy thing to me!
D. I need to improve my diet a bit.
E. What a shock!
F. Maybe you should consult one more doctor.
G. How are things with you?
H. What did the doctor say?
Paula: Hi, Jim. How are you feeling?
Jim:	 Well, not bad. I went to the doctor yesterday - I got an appointment straightaway.
Paula: Really? That’s good. (17) 
Jim: I'm anaemic - that’s why I've been feeling too tired.
Paula: Oh, that s terrible! Discovering you're anaemic, (18) 
Jim:	 To be honest, it doesn't bother me, I was worried it might hi: something more serious.
Paula: Mmm, (19) 
Jim:	 Well, I have to take some tables for a while, and 1 need to eat more food with iron in it, so obviously, 
(20) 
Paula: Mmm. Personally, I think diet is so important.
Jim:	 We’re right, and I haven't paid enough attention to mine.
 Anyway, enough about me. (21) .
Paula: Mmm, we're all fine, but my grandmother's getting worse. She's got dementia.
Jim: Oh, how awful! I'm so sorry.
Paula: Thanks. (22) . By the way, did you see that TV programme the other day about caring for the elderly?
IV.	Read the following sentences and choose the word in the box that best fits each of the blanks.
washed	 furious	 cultural	 lovely
wealthy	 cowardly	 funny	 creative
23.	He comes from quite a . family so he doesn't have to worry about money.
24.	I thought it was really . of him to blame the others for what had happened. He was afraid of being punished!
25.	Puppies are very . but they are also a lot of work to look after.
26.	People say museums are a good way of preserving our .heritage.
27.	His boss was absolutely . when he got to work late and missed an important meeting.
28.	Sonia is so .. She paints, designs her own clothes and makes beautiful jewellery.
V.	Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
RARE AND BEAUTIFUL BLOOMS
One of the rarest flowering plants in the world, the Snowdonia hawkweed, grows wild only in Snowdonia National Park in northern Wales. The region is rocky and mountainous, and the air is cool and damp. The Snowdonia hawkweed prefers this habitat. In fact, it grows nowhere else in the world. It is even picky about where it grows in the park.
Snowdonia hawkweed is about 11 inches tall. Its bright yellow blossoms have thin petals with ragged edges. The Snowdonia hawkweed may not be the most beautiful plant in the world, but it is a favorite snack of sheep.
In 1953, the Snowdonia hawkweed disappeared. People feared that the plant was gone forever. They believed that sheep grazing on the land had eaten the last few plants. So, the people who ran the park removed the sheep from the area, hoping that the hawkweed might return. Forty-nine years later, a group of plant scientists found the yellow flowers blooming in one spot in the park. The hawkweed had returned!
Scientists collected seeds from the plant in case it disappeared again. But since 2002, the rare plant has continued to bloom in the park.
(adapted from Daily Reading Comprehension Grade 5) 
29.	Which phrase best describes the climate of Snowdonia National Park?
A. cold and snowy	B. hot and dry	C. cool and damp	D. warm and windy
30.	Which group of people would probably care most hawkweed disappeared?
A.	scientists who study plants
B.	farmers who graze their sheep In the mountains
C. scientists who study rare birds and insects
D.	visitors who enjoy hiking in the mountains
31.	From the passage, you can conclude that Snowdonia hawkweed ..
A.	is the most beautiful plant in the world
B.	grows like a weed in northern Wales
C. was always rare
D. will never be seen again in the wild
32.	Which adjective best describes how people felt when Snowdonia hawkweed was found in 2002?
A. curio

Tài liệu đính kèm:

  • docx35_de_on_thi_tieng_anh_lop_6.docx